I did not see any material about tithing and the tithe. If you have an opinion about what the “biblical” tithe is I would appreciate hearing what you believe the tithe actually is (I will say that I think it is much more difficult than most realize, but you may have figured it out.) I am not referring to the principle of tithing, but to the actual “tithe.”
The Biblical explanation of the tithe speaks of a tenth of one’s “increase.” We don’t get too nitpicky about all the variables a person can probe like whether an investment nixes or adjusts the percentages or whether an amount has already been tithed upon because of extenuating circumstances. There is no end to that kind of thing if one were trying to get out of paying the tithe. We view the tithe as a starting point on which one is free to add more. It is the willingness of the heart to do what Yahweh expects which is the overriding concern.
While Hanukkah is not scripturally denounced, we prefer to focus on those days that Yahweh commands within His Word (Lev. 23). This preference would also apply to all other traditional days based outside of the Word. For those who choose to observe Hanukkah, we encourage that they simply remember the historical significance and not to participate in the Christmas-like gift and greeting card exchange, tree/bush decorating, and other traditions, which mirror older pagan customs.
What are your views on the 2 houses of Israel? Are the 10 tribes still lost?
We do not subscribe to the two house theory. We are apprehensive about any doctrine that places emphasis on a person’s physical genealogy. In this case, the notion that all believers in Messiah are part of the physical ancestry of Abraham. There are three reasons why we reject this belief.
Number one, there were many believers in the New Testament that were gentiles, i.e., non-Israelites. One of the greatest examples of this was Cornelius. According to Acts 10, this man was a gentile: “There was a certain man in Caesarea called Cornelius, a centurion of the band called the Italian band….” In addition, we also find evidence in Galatians, when a dispute arose between Peter and Paul: “But when Peter was come to Antioch, I withstood him to the face, because he was to be blamed. For before that certain came from James, he did eat with the Gentiles: but when they were come, he withdrew and separated himself, fearing them which were of the circumcision.” Notice that Peter separated himself from the gentiles when the Jews came unto him.
Number two, according to Paul in Titus 3:9 we’re not to focus on genealogies: “But avoid foolish questions, and genealogies, and contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are unprofitable and vain.” Those who make this their focus often neglect the greater truths of Yahweh and in worse cases, develop a sense of self-righteous preeminence.
And number three, a person’s physical descent has no bearing on salvation. All those who are baptized into the Name of Yahshua the Messiah are part of Abraham’s seed, whether they be Jew or gentile! In Galatians 3:26-29 Paul states, “For ye are all the children of Yahweh by faith in Messiah Yahshua. For as many of you as have been baptized into Messiah have put on Messiah. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Messiah Yahshua. And if ye be Messiah’s, then are ye Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.”
Regarding your second question, while we do not hold an official stance on this subject, it is generally believed that the ten tribes of Israel migrated from the Middle East into Europe sometime after the Assyrian captivity. Due to the inability to substantiate this belief, however, we abstain from pressing this beyond a fascinating possibility.
Why do you believe New Testament worship has Hebraic roots?
First, virtually all the writers of the New Testament were Hebrews, the Apostle Paul among them. He was a Pharisee and served on the Sanhedrin, the Hebrew court. The native tongue of Hebrews was Hebrew, not Greek. Any time the writers of the New Testament heard a language from heaven, it was in the Hebrew tongue. These facts alone reveal that the New Testament (Covenant) has a Hebrew base.
Second, the internal evidence shows that the New Testament is filled with Hebraic mannerisms and expressions. These don’t make any sense in original Greek, or English, but make perfect sense in original Hebrew. The New Testament has many Hebraic idioms that would never have come out of a Greek original. For instance, what writer in English would use a Spanish idiom like: I asked if the butter is grease (meaning I didn’t beat around the bush, or a German idiom like: “To have a bird [in the head], meaning are you crazy? One would not normally use foreign language idioms when communicating in English.
The Hebrew waw consecutive (consecutive sentences beginning with the word “and”) is a Hebraism not used in Greek. It is found not only all over the Old Testament, especially in the first five books, but also is abundant in the New Testament, especially in the Evangels and Revelation.
Third, Paul’s letters were written by Paul to small Messianic congregations in Asia Minor, Greece and Rome. These early Messianics were Jews of the Dispersion, men and women of Hebrew origin. They spoke Hebrew as their native tongue. Paul would naturally write to them in the Hebrew tongue. They would in turn explain his letters to any converts from foreign lands.
Fourth, Greek was not a popular language in the Galilee region nor was it the language of the Apostles or the Temple. First-century Jewish historian Flavius Josephus wrote, “Our nation does not encourage those that learn the languages of many nations.” In fact, the Hebrews detested the Gentile Greeks. And this highly educated priest said he himself had a very hard time with Greek.
After reading many articles, I have two questions. “To be absent from the body is to be present with the L-rd” and “today you will be with me in paradise” both passages seem to indicate that something follows death besides sleep or the end of existence (prior to the resurrections). What do you take as the meaning of those two scriptures?
When Paul stated in 2Corinthians 5:8, “We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Master,” he was simply saying that he would prefer to be with the Master, not that he was or could. He was not even sure of his own salvation, 1Cor. 9:27. The common misquotation of the passage is, “To be absent from the body IS to be present with the Master.” The two are not symbiotic. Being without a body following death is not the same as being with Yahshua, as the misquotation suggests. Besides, not everyone without a body (in death) will receive salvation.
When Yahshua stated in Luke 23:43, “Verily I say unto thee, today shall you be with me in paradise,” we understand He was saying, “I say to you today, you shall be with me in paradise.” It was an emphatic statement and the Greek did not have punctuation to bring that out. Yahshua was assuring the thief that very day that upon His return that the thief would be with Him in paradise or the kingdom.” We use the same terminology when we say, “I’m telling you right now…” Punctuation was added by English translators based on their understanding of the context. We know that the common misquotation of the verse is in error because Yahshua never went to paradise that day. He was in the tomb three days and nights before He resurrected from death.
The resurrected saints will definitely see Yahweh as they serve Him in His Kingdom. Note the following:
In Psalm 17:15 David wrote, “As for me, I will behold thy face in righteousness: I shall be satisfied, when I awake, with thy likeness.” In Matthew 5:8 Yahshua said, “Blessed [are] the pure in heart: for they shall see Elohim.” Revelation 22:3-4 tells us: “And there shall be no more curse: but the throne of Yahweh and of the Lamb shall be in it; and his servants shall serve him: And they shall see his face; and his name [shall be] in their foreheads.”
Some have said that the Kingdom is only for those men who have served as ministers now and that women and members do not have any part of it until the second resurrection. Could this be true?
The Sadducees came to Yahshua in Luke 20 and asked Him whose husband a woman would be if she remarried seven times with seven brothers after each had died. He answered in verse 35: “They which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage: Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of Elohim, being the children of the resurrection.”
His answer tells us these truths: He raised the point of marriage, which occurs only between a man and woman. The woman (any righteous woman) was therefore included in the first resurrection. This is clearly the first resurrection because those in it will not die any more, while those in the second resurrection, which is a resurrection to physical life, can be killed in the lake of fire if they prove unworthy, Revelation 20:15. Indeed, 1Thessalonians 4:16-17 makes no distinction between sexes in the first resurrection.
We further read in Galatians 3:28: “There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for you are all one in Messiah Yahshua.” If righteous women are considered one in Messiah along with righteous men — and in fact those of any race who have been called — how can any one of them be excluded from the first resurrection?
Do you believe that all who are written in the Book of Life will be in heaven?
Yahweh’s Word does not promise heaven to anyone. Yahshua in John 3:13 said no one had gone to heaven, not even after 4,000 years of human life and death on earth. All who are written in the book of life will be in the Kingdom on earth, however.
Revelation 21:27 reads, “And there shall in no wise enter into it [the Kingdom] any thing that defiles, neither whatsoever worketh abomination, or maketh a lie: but they which are written in the Lamb’s book of life.”
Contrarily, those who are not in the book of life will be the ones worshiping the beast. “And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world,” Revelation 13:8
The Bible says in John 3:13 that no one has ever gone to heaven, but I read in2Kings 2:11 that Eliyah was taken up to Heaven. Please explain
The account of EliYah in 2Kings 2:11 is often used to justify that man goes to heaven after death. With careful study, however, one will find that EliYah never traveled to heaven. One reason we know is the fact that King Jehoram received a letter from EliYah after this incident (2Chron. 21:12).
We believe that the chariot of fire and whirlwind described in this passage were likely manifestations of Yahweh’s Spirit (compare with 2Kings 6:17) and the reference to heaven simply refers to the “first heaven,” which by definition in Strong’s Concordance is “the visible arch in which the clouds move.” Three heavens are spoken of in Scripture.
No conflict exists between John 3:13 and 2Kings 2:11. Yahshua, our authority on heaven, stated that no man had gone to heaven except for himself who also descended from heaven. Additional understanding can be gleaned in the Biblical concept of death and the resurrection. Scripture clearly states that upon death that one loses all thought (Ps. 146:4) and is only awakened to consciousness at the resurrection (Dan. 2:12, 1Thess. 4:13-16).
Could you explain Rev. 14:11 in regard to everlasting torment of the wicked?
The passage reads, “And the smoke of their torment ascended up for ever and ever: and they have no rest day nor night, who worship the beast and his image, and whosoever receive the mark of his name.” Some interpret this passage to say that the wicked burn in hellfire forever. First, notice that it is “smoke” of their torment, not the fires, that lasts forever. Smoke results from something burned. This indicates that they were consumed and all that remains is smoke. Jude 7 speaks of the “vengeance of eternal fire” that burned Sodom and Gomorrah. But these cities are not still burning. They are an everlasting reminder, however, of Yahweh’s wrath.
I did not see any material about tithing and the tithe. If you have an opinion about what the “biblical” tithe is I would appreciate hearing what you believe the tithe actually is (I will say that I think it is much more difficult than most realize, but you may have figured it out.) I am not referring to the principle of tithing, but to the actual “tithe.”
The Biblical explanation of the tithe speaks of a tenth of one’s “increase.” We don’t get too nitpicky about all the variables a person can probe like whether an investment nixes or adjusts the percentages or whether an amount has already been tithed upon because of extenuating circumstances. There is no end to that kind of thing if one were trying to get out of paying the tithe. We view the tithe as a starting point on which one is free to add more. It is the willingness of the heart to do what Yahweh expects which is the overriding concern.