What are your views on the 2 houses of Israel? Are the 10 tribes still lost?

q    What are your views on the 2 houses of Israel? Are the 10 tribes still lost?

aWe do not subscribe to the two house theory. We are apprehensive about any doctrine that places emphasis on a person’s physical genealogy. In this case, the notion that all believers in Messiah are part of the physical ancestry of Abraham. There are three reasons why we reject this belief.

Number one, there were many believers in the New Testament that were gentiles, i.e., non-Israelites. One of the greatest examples of this was Cornelius. According to Acts 10, this man was a gentile: “There was a certain man in Caesarea called Cornelius, a centurion of the band called the Italian band….” In addition, we also find evidence in Galatians, when a dispute arose between Peter and Paul: “But when Peter was come to Antioch, I withstood him to the face, because he was to be blamed. For before that certain came from James, he did eat with the Gentiles: but when they were come, he withdrew and separated himself, fearing them which were of the circumcision.” Notice that Peter separated himself from the gentiles when the Jews came unto him.

Number two, according to Paul in Titus 3:9 we’re not to focus on genealogies: “But avoid foolish questions, and genealogies, and contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are unprofitable and vain.” Those who make this their focus often neglect the greater truths of Yahweh and in worse cases, develop a sense of self-righteous preeminence.

And number three, a person’s physical descent has no bearing on salvation. All those who are baptized into the Name of Yahshua the Messiah are part of Abraham’s seed, whether they be Jew or gentile! In Galatians 3:26-29 Paul states, “For ye are all the children of Yahweh by faith in Messiah Yahshua. For as many of you as have been baptized into Messiah have put on Messiah. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Messiah Yahshua. And if ye be Messiah’s, then are ye Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.”

Regarding your second question, while we do not hold an official stance on this subject, it is generally believed that the ten tribes of Israel migrated from the Middle East into Europe sometime after the Assyrian captivity. Due to the inability to substantiate this belief, however, we abstain from pressing this beyond a fascinating possibility.

Why do you believe New Testament worship has Hebraic roots?

q    Why do you believe New Testament worship has Hebraic roots?

aFirst, virtually all the writers of the New Testament were Hebrews, the Apostle Paul among them. He was a Pharisee and served on the Sanhedrin, the Hebrew court. The native tongue of Hebrews was Hebrew, not Greek. Any time the writers of the New Testament heard a language from heaven, it was in the Hebrew tongue. These facts alone reveal that the New Testament (Covenant) has a Hebrew base.

Second, the internal evidence shows that the New Testament is filled with Hebraic mannerisms and expressions. These don’t make any sense in original Greek, or English, but make perfect sense in original Hebrew. The New Testament has many Hebraic idioms that would never have come out of a Greek original. For instance, what writer in English would use a Spanish idiom like: I asked if the butter is grease (meaning I didn’t beat around the bush, or a German idiom like: “To have a bird [in the head], meaning are you crazy? One would not normally use foreign language idioms when communicating in English.

The Hebrew waw consecutive (consecutive sentences beginning with the word “and”) is a Hebraism not used in Greek. It is found not only all over the Old Testament, especially in the first five books, but also is abundant in the New Testament, especially in the Evangels and Revelation.

Third, Paul’s letters were written by Paul to small Messianic congregations in Asia Minor, Greece and Rome. These early Messianics were Jews of the Dispersion, men and women of Hebrew origin. They spoke Hebrew as their native tongue. Paul would naturally write to them in the Hebrew tongue. They would in turn explain his letters to any converts from foreign lands.

Fourth, Greek was not a popular language in the Galilee region nor was it the language of the Apostles or the Temple. First-century Jewish historian Flavius Josephus wrote, “Our nation does not encourage those that learn the languages of many nations.” In fact, the Hebrews detested the Gentile Greeks. And this highly educated priest said he himself had a very hard time with Greek.

 

What happens when we die?

q    After reading many articles, I have two questions. “To be absent from the body is to be present with the L-rd” and “today you will be with me in paradise” both passages seem to indicate that something follows death besides sleep or the end of existence (prior to the resurrections). What do you take as the meaning of those two scriptures?

aWhen Paul stated in 2Corinthians 5:8, “We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Master,” he was simply saying that he would prefer to be with the Master, not that he was or could. He was not even sure of his own salvation, 1Cor. 9:27. The common misquotation of the passage is, “To be absent from the body IS to be present with the Master.” The two are not symbiotic. Being without a body following death is not the same as being with Yahshua, as the misquotation suggests. Besides, not everyone without a body (in death) will receive salvation.

When Yahshua stated in Luke 23:43, “Verily I say unto thee, today shall you be with me in paradise,” we understand He was saying, “I say to you today, you shall be with me in paradise.” It was an emphatic statement and the Greek did not have punctuation to bring that out. Yahshua was assuring the thief that very day that upon His return that the thief would be with Him in paradise or the kingdom.” We use the same terminology when we say, “I’m telling you right now…” Punctuation was added by English translators based on their understanding of the context. We know that the common misquotation of the verse is in error because Yahshua never went to paradise that day. He was in the tomb three days and nights before He resurrected from death.

Will we see Yahweh in eternity?

q    Will we see Yahweh in eternity?

aThe resurrected saints will definitely see Yahweh as they serve Him in His Kingdom. Note the following:

In Psalm 17:15 David wrote, “As for me, I will behold thy face in righteousness: I shall be satisfied, when I awake, with thy likeness.” In Matthew 5:8 Yahshua said, “Blessed [are] the pure in heart: for they shall see Elohim.” Revelation 22:3-4 tells us: “And there shall be no more curse: but the throne of Yahweh and of the Lamb shall be in it; and his servants shall serve him: And they shall see his face; and his name [shall be] in their foreheads.”

Some have said that the Kingdom is only for those men who have served as ministers now and that women and members do not have any part of it until the second resurrection. Could this be true?

q    Some have said that the Kingdom is only for those men who have served as ministers now and that women and members do not have any part of it until the second resurrection. Could this be true?

aThe Sadducees came to Yahshua in Luke 20 and asked Him whose husband a woman would be if she remarried seven times with seven brothers after each had died. He answered in verse 35: “They which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage: Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of Elohim, being the children of the resurrection.”

His answer tells us these truths: He raised the point of marriage, which occurs only between a man and woman. The woman (any righteous woman) was therefore included in the first resurrection. This is clearly the first resurrection because those in it will not die any more, while those in the second resurrection, which is a resurrection to physical life, can be killed in the lake of fire if they prove unworthy, Revelation 20:15. Indeed, 1Thessalonians 4:16-17 makes no distinction between sexes in the first resurrection.

We further read in Galatians 3:28: “There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for you are all one in Messiah Yahshua.” If righteous women are considered one in Messiah along with righteous men — and in fact those of any race who have been called — how can any one of them be excluded from the first resurrection?

Do you believe that all who are written in the Book of Life will be in heaven?

q    Do you believe that all who are written in the Book of Life will be in heaven?

aYahweh’s Word does not promise heaven to anyone. Yahshua in John 3:13 said no one had gone to heaven, not even after 4,000 years of human life and death on earth. All who are written in the book of life will be in the Kingdom on earth, however.

Revelation 21:27 reads, “And there shall in no wise enter into it [the Kingdom] any thing that defiles, neither whatsoever worketh abomination, or maketh a lie: but they which are written in the Lamb’s book of life.”

Contrarily, those who are not in the book of life will be the ones worshiping the beast. “And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world,” Revelation 13:8

The Bible says in John 3:13 that no one has ever gone to heaven, but I read in2Kings 2:11 that Eliyah was taken up to Heaven. Please explain

q    The Bible says in John 3:13 that no one has ever gone to heaven, but I read in2Kings 2:11 that Eliyah was taken up to Heaven. Please explain

aThe account of EliYah in 2Kings 2:11 is often used to justify that man goes to heaven after death. With careful study, however, one will find that EliYah never traveled to heaven. One reason we know is the fact that King Jehoram received a letter from EliYah after this incident (2Chron. 21:12).

We believe that the chariot of fire and whirlwind described in this passage were likely manifestations of Yahweh’s Spirit (compare with 2Kings 6:17) and the reference to heaven simply refers to the “first heaven,” which by definition in Strong’s Concordance is “the visible arch in which the clouds move.” Three heavens are spoken of in Scripture.

No conflict exists between John 3:13 and 2Kings 2:11. Yahshua, our authority on heaven, stated that no man had gone to heaven except for himself who also descended from heaven. Additional understanding can be gleaned in the Biblical concept of death and the resurrection. Scripture clearly states that upon death that one loses all thought (Ps. 146:4) and is only awakened to consciousness at the resurrection (Dan. 2:12, 1Thess. 4:13-16).

Could you explain Rev. 14:11 in regard to everlasting torment of the wicked?

q    Could you explain Rev. 14:11 in regard to everlasting torment of the wicked?

aThe passage reads, “And the smoke of their torment ascended up for ever and ever: and they have no rest day nor night, who worship the beast and his image, and whosoever receive the mark of his name.” Some interpret this passage to say that the wicked burn in hellfire forever.  First, notice that it is “smoke” of their torment, not the fires, that lasts forever. Smoke results from something burned. This indicates that they were consumed and all that remains is smoke. Jude 7 speaks of the “vengeance of eternal fire” that burned Sodom and Gomorrah. But these cities are not still burning. They are an everlasting reminder, however, of Yahweh’s wrath.

Please explain your understanding of the Holy Spirit.

q    Please explain your understanding of the Holy Spirit.

aThe Holy Spirit in an extension of Yahweh’s power and not the third person of triune majesty. It should be noted that the Holy Spirit is never directly prayed to or addressed. Instead, Yahweh uses His Spirit to guide His people into His truth. Note the definition of the word ruach (Heb. for “spirit”): “The basic meaning of ruach is both ‘wind’ or ‘breath,’ but neither is understood as essence; rather it is the power encountered in the breath and the wind, whose whence and whither remains mysterious…2. ruach as a designation for the wind is necessarily something found in motion with the power to set other things in motion…The divine designation also apparently has an intensifying function in a few passages: ruach elohim (Gen 1:2) and ruach yhwh (Isa 59:19)” (Theological Lexicon of the Old Testament, “Ruach”). This lexicon also states that ruach implies a power that is within the breath and wind, which is connected to the Name YHWH or Yahweh.

 The Holy Spirit is the power emanating from Yahweh, the Heavenly Father. It can be further demonstrated through Scriptures that the Holy Spirit is not a separate being, but an inanimate power that proceeds from the Father. In Isaiah 32:15, 44:3, and Acts 2:17 the Holy Spirit is described as being poured. How can a being be “poured” into another? Titus 3:5-6 and Acts 2:33 testify that the spirit is shed. How can a being “shed” itself onto another? The Spirit is also described as something that can be stirred up, 2Tim. 1:6; quenched, 1Thes. 5:19, and renewed, 2Cor. 4:16. These attributes are far more fitting for a power than a person.

For a more in-depth study on the Trinity read our booklet: Identifying Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.

In your statement of beliefs, you describe the Holy Spirit as a force…can you be more specific?

q     In your statement of beliefs, you describe the Holy Spirit as a force…can you be more specific?

Based on a Scripture the Holy Spirit is the force or power of Almighty Yahweh that guides and directs His people. In Scripture the Holy Spirit is used an extension of Yahweh Himself (e.g. Luke 11:13, Eph. 4:30, 1Thess. 4:8).

The word “Spirit” is derived from the Hebrew ruach and the Greek word pneuma.

“Ruwach (roo’-akh); from OT: 7306; wind; by resemblance breath…” (Strong’s Concordance). “Pneuma (pnyoo’-mah); from NT:4154; a current of air, i.e. breath (blast) or a breeze; by analogy or figuratively, a spirit…” (Strong’s Concordance).

Notice that for both words the first definition conveys the idea of wind or a current of air, neither of which are living beings, but a force or power. In the same way the Holy Spirit is the force or power of our Father in heaven. We never see anyone communicating or praying directly to the Spirit. In addition, in the opening salutations of the various New Testament books we often find the writer addressing the Father and Son, but never the Holy Spirit.

The Scriptures are clear that the Father and Son are not equal. We find multiple statements that the Father is greater than the Son in both knowledge and authority:

• ”But of that day and that hour knows no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father” (Mark 13:32, KJV).

• ”Yahshua said to them, “You will indeed drink from my cup, but to sit at my right or left is not for me to grant. These places belong to those for whom they have been prepared by my Father” (Matt. 20:23, NIV).

• ”You have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If you loved me, you would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I” (John 14:28, KJV).

• ”But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Messiah; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Messiah is Yahweh” (1Cor. 11:3, KJV).

• ”One Elohim and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all” (Eph. 4:6, KJV).

• “My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father’s hand” (John 10:29, KJV).

For a more in-depth study, read our booklet: Identifying Father, Son, and Holy Spirit