What kind of tongue is referred to in 1 Corinthians 14:2-5? What does Paul mean when he refers to the unknown tongue and no man understanding it? Also, why does he state in verse four that an unknown tongue only edifies the person speaking in the unknown tongue? Lastly, why does he wish all men to speak in tongues, as seen in verse five?
“For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto Elohim: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries. But he that prophesieth speaketh unto men to edification, and exhortation, and comfort. He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the assembly. I would that ye all spake with tongues, but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the assembly may receive edifying,” 1Corinthians 14:2-5.
When trying to understand what Paul is conveying in the above passage, it’s important that we understand the Greek words for “tongues” and “prophesy.”
The phrase “unknown tongue” found in 1Corinthians 14:2 is from the Greek glossa. Strong’s defines glossa as, “…the tongue; by implication, a language (specially, one naturally unacquired).” Thayer’s states, “…a tongue; the language or dialect used by a particular people distinct from that of other nations.” From these sources, glossa clearly refers to a known language or dialect. This is critically important to understand. As seen in Acts 2, those gathered for Pentecost spoke and heard one another in their native language.
The word “prophesy” comes from the Greek propheteuo and means, “…to foretell events, divine, speak under inspiration, exercise the prophetic office.” Along with foretelling the future, propheteuo also conveys the thought of simply teaching under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit.
Based on the above definitions and the context of this passage, Paul is confirming that when someone speaks in an unknown tongue, i.e., language, that he only benefits himself. The reason for this is that his language is unknown to the audience. However, when someone prophesies, i.e., speaks under the inspiration of the Spirit, they benefit all who hear the message.
Regarding your last question as to why Paul wishes all to speak in tongues, we believe the emphasis is not on the gift of tongues, but on the gift of prophecy. He says “…but rather that you prophesied.” From verse 22, Paul verifies that tongues was a sign to the unbeliever, while prophecy was a sign to the believer.
Regarding the “Pentecostal” interpretation of tongues, this is not scriptural and not supported here or elsewhere in the Bible.
Is hell a real place or just a pagan notion adopted by early Christianity? Also, does the Bible show that the fallen angels go to hell?
We believe that hell is a real place, but not as most believe. To understand this concept, it’s crucial to understand a few Hebrew and Greek words found in the Old and New testaments.
The Old Testament contains the word “sheol.” It appears 66 times and is rendered in the KJV as, “grave, hell and pit.” It does not refer to a place of ever-burning torment. The Greek equivalent to sheol is “hades.” Even though both words originally referred to the grave or to the place where the righteous and wicked go at death, hades took on a new meaning through Hellenistic influence to include concepts of a place of torture or imprisonment.
Authors Alan F. Johnson and Robert E. Webber explain this transformation in their book, What Christians Believe–A Biblical and Historical Summary: “In the intertestamental period there were significant developments in eschatological themes. The first relates to the development of a compartmental view of sheol. When the righteous and the wicked die, they go to different places. This is to be contrasted with the Old Testament view that sheol is the place where both the righteous and wicked go. Under the growing influence of Greek concepts of a distinct body and soul, some Jews taught that after death ‘the immortal and perishable soul, once detached from the ties of the flesh and thus freed from bondage, flies happily upwards’ [quote from Flavius Josephus, The Jewish Wars, II, VII.2]…On the other hand the wicked go to sheol, which is now identified with the Greek hades. This region of damnation is also called gehenna, a place of eternal fire (originally the old rubbish heap and a place of child sacrifice south of Mount Zion in Jerusalem). It was known as the Valley of Hinnom,” pp. 423-424.
As this source confirms, sheol and hades originally both referred to the grave. However, as Greek influence spread within the early church, these terms took on new meanings, including separate places for the righteous and wicked. In addition, the concept of an immortal soul was introduced, which is also foreign to Scripture. In fact, the term “immortal soul” never appears in the Bible. Many scholars believe this notion of an immortal soul arose through ancient Egypt, which was later adopted by the Greeks and eventually introduced to the Church.
A third word associated with the concept of “hell” is the Greek “gehenna.” This term refers to the Valley of Hinnom, a large valley positioned on the south side of the city of Jerusalem. It was in this valley where Israel would throw their trash. For this reason, this valley was perpetually burning. As a side note, this is also where Israel sacrificed their children to Molech. It is from this valley and practice where the concept of an ever-burning hell-fire arose.
So while the Bible does confirm a place of fiery judgment, it is not a place of perpetual burning or torment. When the Bible speaks about someone suffering hell-fire or gehenna, it’s referring to their complete destruction.
There are a few key passages confirming that hell-fire does not refer to an ever-burning or perpetual place of torment. For instance, Judah 7 states that Sodom and Gomorrah suffered the example of “eternal fire.” Interestingly, Sodom and Gomorrah are no longer burning. In 2016 when we toured the ancient site of Gomorrah, we found only ash and scattered sulfur balls. Nothing else of the ancient city remained.
A similar example in found in Jeremiah 7:20. It states there, “Therefore thus saith my Sovereign Yahweh; Behold, mine anger and my fury shall be poured out upon this place, upon man, and upon beast, and upon the trees of the field, and upon the fruit of the ground; and it shall burn, and shall not be quenched.” This passage is referring to Jerusalem’s destruction by the Babylonians. As with Gomorrah, there is no perpetual fire burning today in Jerusalem.
The phrases “eternal fire” and “shall not be quenched” do not refer to a perpetual or ever-burning hell-fire, but to the totality of Yahweh’s destruction. Sodom and Gomorrah suffered complete annihilation by fire from heaven. In like manner, Judah suffered complete destruction by Babylon.
The concept of ever-burning fire is not biblical, but one that crept in through Greek teachings. It’s important to realize that many of today’s church teachings originated through Hellenistic influence within the early church, including other doctrines such as Sunday worship and many of today’s popular holidays.
There is one last word associated with a place of judgment and that is “Tartaros.” This word is mentioned only once in 2Peter 2:4 and is associated with the place of judgment for the angels who rebelled. Greek mythology also refers to this term and believes it resides under hades. It’s important to realize that this definition is not based on Scripture, but Greek mythology. The Bible itself does not provide a location for this term. It is also unclear from the Greek tense whether this is past or future. Even though the KJV shows this is past tense, this judgment is likely future tense.
As an ex-Muslim, are the Father and Son co-equal and co-eternal, as we find in the Trinity?
We do not believe that the Father and Son are co-eternal and co-equal as explained by the Trinity, but that the Father and Son are distinct or separate beings with only the Father having immortality or eternity, i.e., having always existed without beginning, and the Son being the firstborn of the Father.
“Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen,” 1Timothy 6:16. This passage refers to the Father and states that He only has immortality. Here the word immortality refers to the fact that only the Father has always existed.This again is not true of the Son.
“Who is the image of the invisible El, the firstborn of every creature,” Colossians 1:15. Paul refers here to Yahshua the Messiah. The Greek literally means the first-begotten of creation.
“And unto the angel of the assembly of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of Elohim,” Revelation 3:14. While the Greek word for “beginning” can also refer to rank, the context is clearly referring to time, verifying that the Son was the first begotten of the Father. If the Son was the first begotten of creation, there was a point in time He did not exist.
Regarding the concept of coequality, the Bible is quite clear that the Father is greater than the Son. This was true during Yahshua’s earthly ministry and after His ascension to the Father.
“My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father’s hand,” John 10:29.
“Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I,” John 14:28.
“But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Messiah; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Messiah is Yahweh,” 1Corinthians 11:3.
How do you actually measure when the barley is starting to be ready signifying the beginning of the year? Do you need to harvest your own barley? Does this have to be done in Jerusalem? Also, I have been looking at the idea of full moon as ‘New Moon’ and not the first sliver as new moon. Someone who believes new moon means full moon, would point to the difficulty with sighting the first sliver. How do you deal with issues of not being able to see the very first sliver of a crescent? Also, what are your thoughts on the lunar calendar?
As a ministry we’ve been observing the biblical calendar for 19 years. Here is a concise explanation as to why we use the barley to begin the biblical year and new moon crescent to begin the month.
Evidence for the barley can be found in the meaning of the word Abib, the name of the first biblical month, and in biblical scholarship.
We find a reference to the first biblical month in Deuteronomy 16:1. It states, “Observe the month of Abib….” The word “Abib” literally refers to young ears of grain.
“…from an unused root (meaning to be tender); green, i.e. a young ear of grain; hence, the name of the month Abib or Nisan,” Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance.
“Month of ear-forming, of greening of crop, of growing green Abib, the month of the Exodus and the Passover (March or April),” Driver & Briggs Hebrew Lexicon.
“…barley that is already ripe, but still soft, the grains of which are eaten either rubbed or roasted,” The Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament.
“The name of the month, so called because corn [grain] was then forming in the ear, a few weeks before harvest; falling somewhere about March or April; afterwards called Nisan, the first month of the Hebrew year,” Wilson’s Old Testament Word Studies.
Since Abib refers to young grain, i.e., barley, this is what we use to mark the first biblical month. Strictly speaking, Abib describes the stage of barley that is within the dough stage or later. The minimum allowance for Abib was a sheaf used in bundling or about two dry quarts. Also, since the Bible confirms that the barley precedes the new moon crescent (Exodus 9:31 and 12:2), you must have barley that meets the minimum stage of Abib by the new moon crescent. We reject the idea of projecting the barley in anticipation of the wave sheaf offering.
Since Israel observed the barley from the Holy Land and there is a need for one unified year throughout the globe, we observe the barley from Israel. While we do not personally look for the barley, we rely on several independent witnesses who travel and document the barley from Israel.
Scholarship also confirms the use of barley to commence the first biblical month of the biblical year:
“…Abib is not properly a name of a month, but part of a descriptive phrase, ‘the month of young ears of grain.’ This may indicate the Israelitish way of determining the new year (Ex 12:2), the year beginning with the new moon nearest or next preceding this stage of the growth of the barley,” International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia
“The months began with the new moon, but the first month was fixed (after the Exodus and by the necessities of the Passover) by the ripening of the earliest grain, namely, barley,” New Unger’s Bible Dictionary.
Regarding the new moon crescent and full moon, we believe that Scripture and scholarship confirms the new moon.
The word month, as seen in Exodus 12:2 and Deuteronomy 16:1, comes from the Hebrew chodesh and is defined, “…from OT:2318; the new moon; by implication, a month: -month (-ly), new moon.” OT:2318, chadash, is “a primitive root; to be new; causatively, to rebuild.” Strong’s used for both definitions.
In addition to Scripture, evidence for the new moon crescent is also found in antiquity. Philo of Alexandria, c. 20 BCE – c. 50 CE, a Hellenistic Jewish philosopher who lived in Alexandria, Egypt, before and during the time of the Messiah, states, “…at the time of the new moon, the sun begins to illuminate the moon with a light which is visible to the outward senses, and then she displays her own beauty to the beholders,” The Works of Philo, p. 283.
Clearly, Philo is describing the first appearance of the new moon crescent and not the full moon.
Scholarship also confirms the new moon crescent:
“The Hebrew or Jewish calendar had three stages of development: the preexilic, or Biblical; the postexilic, or Talmudic; and the post-Talmudic. The first rested on observation merely, the second on observation coupled with calculation, and the third on calculation only. In the first period the priests determined the beginning of each month by the appearance of the new moon,” International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia.
“As the festivals, according to the Mosaic law, were always to be celebrated on the same day of the month, it was necessary to fix the commencement of the month. This was determined by the appearance of the new moon; for the new moon was reckoned not by astronomical calculation, but by actual personal observation. On the thirtieth day of the month watchmen were placed on commanding heights around Jerusalem to watch the sky. As soon as each of them detected the moon he hastened to a house in the city kept for this purpose and was there examined by the president of the Sanhedrin.
“When the evidence of the appearance was deemed satisfactory, the president stood up and formally announced it, uttering the words, ‘It is consecrated.’ The information was immediately sent throughout the land from the Mount of Olives by beacon fires on the tops of the hills. The religious observance of the day of the new moon may plainly be regarded as the consecration of a natural division of time,” New Unger’s Bible Dictionary.
“Originally, the New Moon was not fixed by astronomical calculation, but was solemnly proclaimed after witnesses had testified to the reappearance of the crescent of the moon… By the middle of the fourth century, the sages had established a permanent calendar and the public proclamation of the New Moon was discontinued,” Encyclopaedia Judaica, Vol. 12, p. 1039.
Based on the meaning of the Hebrew chodesh, evidence from early antiquity, and the preponderance of proof from scholarship, Israel clearly used the new moon crescent and not the full moon. As a side note, this would also include the conjunction or dark moon, as this was adopted with Hillel’s changes to the Jewish calendar in the 4th century CE.
Regarding the issue of not seeing the crescent new moon, this has never been a problem for us in the United States. This is mainly due to the size of the nation and ample opportunity to see the crescent. However, if there was an issue, we would likely adopt the method used by the Jews during the time of Messiah. Since the lunar cycle is approximately 29.5 days, they would automatically mark the 30th day in the event that the new moon crescent was not seen by the 30th evening.
As for the lunar Sabbath, this is not scriptural and contradicts the Bible in several points. For instance, the moon was not in place until the fourth day. Also, how does this work with a lunar cycle with a duration of 29.5 days? Every month you have remaining days that you must either observe as additional Sabbaths or ignore. In either instance, how does this fit with the command of working six days and resting the seventh? Also, we’re told to count seven complete Sabbaths from the wavesheaf to Pentecost. This is impossible with the lunar Sabbath doctrine. For additional information, please see our booklet: The Lunar Sabbath Illusion.
What does the Bible say about free will and predestination? Does it support one or the other?
We believe that the Bible confirms free will. Deuteronomy 30 makes this abundantly clear: “See, I have set before thee this day life and good, and death and evil; In that I command thee this day to love Yahweh thy Elohim, to walk in his ways, and to keep his commandments and his statutes and his judgments, that thou mayest live and multiply: and Yahweh thy Elohim shall bless thee in the land whither thou goest to possess it. But if thine heart turn away, so that thou wilt not hear, but shalt be drawn away, and worship other mighty ones, and serve them; I denounce unto you this day, that ye shall surely perish, and that ye shall not prolong your days upon the land, whither thou passest over Jordan to go to possess it. I call heaven and earth to record this day against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing: therefore choose life, that both thou and thy seed may live,” verses 15-18.
Therefore, we reject this notion of predestination. While the Bible seems to indicate that Yahweh may predestine or call certain people to the truth, our selection is based on what we do with that calling. We also tend to believe that Yahweh knows the beginning to the end. However, He will not act or change the course of our lives based on His foreknowledge of what will occur. This would invalidate free will.
Some are claiming that not a single Jew in Israel has even heard the name Yahweh. Can you ask Pastor Randy, seeing that he has traveled to Israel several times, if this is true?
Hello this is Pastor Randy. The claim that not a single Jew would use or support the name Yahweh is completely false. In my travels to the Holy Land I have spoken to messianic pastors and Jews, including archaeologists and graduates from Hebrew University who support the name Yahweh.
In one case, a pastor who has lived in Israel for many years confirmed that he personally has been at the Wailing Wall on the Day of Atonement and had distinctly heard the Jews pronouncing “Yahweh” throughout the day. Also, in our last trip, I personally spoke with our archaeologist, who was also our guide, about the pronunciation of our Heavenly Father. While he himself would not pronounce it, he did confirm that “Yahweh” was the right pronunciation. He also stated that this is how his Yemenite wife would pronounce the Name and explained how Yemenite Hebrew is closer to biblical Hebrew with the use of the “waw” in place of the newer “vav.” This is because the Yemenite Jews never migrated into northern Europe and consequently were not impacted by Germanic influence.
For more info on Yahweh’s Name please check out or free booklet Your Fathers Name.
Is the earth a sphere or do we live on a flat earth? Also, are we living in a heliocentric model of the universe?
The Bible describes the earth as circular in shape. Isaiah 40:22 states, “It is he that sitteth upon the circle of the earth, and the inhabitants thereof are as grasshoppers; that stretcheth out the heavens as a curtain, and spreadeth them out as a tent to dwell in.”
The word “circle” derives from the Hebrew chuwg. Strong’s defines this word as a “…from OT:2328; a circle.” The Brown Driver & Briggs Hebrew Lexicon provides a similar quote: “a circle, a circuit, a compass.” Some will agree that the earth is circular in shape, but is flat and not a three-dimensional sphere.
As seen above, BDB expands the definition of chuwg to include a “vault,” which is a three-dimensional shape. It’s also noteworthy that according to Modern Hebrew, chuwg includes the definition of a sphere.
Regarding the heliocentric model, i.e., planets revolve around the sun, the Bible does not have much to say about this. However, we find ample evidence in science for both the heliocentric model and the sphere of the earth.
As early as 500 BCE, Pythagoras of Samos, a well-known Greek mathematician, hypothesized that the sun was sphere-shaped and that the earth rotated around it. As a side note, Pythagorean theorem was named after Pythagoras. Plato (427-347 BCE) and Aristotle (384-322 BCE), along with nearly all Greek writers after the 5th century, alsobelieved in a spherical earth.
Aristotle based his belief on several natural phenomena. For example, he noticed stars that could be seen in Cyrus could not be seen in the northern region. He also observed that when traveling south, the southern constellations rose higher above the horizon. In addition, he noticed that during a lunar eclipse the shadow of the earth was circular.
This theory was gradually accepted through late antiquity and the Middle-Ages and would eventually replace the idea of a flat earth. Today, this has been further confirmed by modern science, including thousands of pictures from space verifying the earth is spherical in shape.
From our perspective, the thought of hundreds of thousands of world leaders, scientists, graphic artists, engineers, and staff of every space agency in the world, private and international, engaged in a worldwide conspiracy to deceive the masses is not reasonable. This belief has also caused unnecessary division within the body of Messiah.
Please explain the phrase, “…and the Word was G-d.” Also, based on Psalm 82:6, are human beings also divine?
The phrase “…and the Word was God,” as found in John 1:1 of the KJV is simply stating that Yahshua was divine or a Mighty One with His Father. The word “God” comes from the Greek theos. Strong’s defines this word as, “…a deity, especially (with NT:3588) the supreme Divinity; figuratively, a magistrate; by Hebraism, very.”
While many believe that the word “God” applies to only the Heavenly Father or a single divine essence, the fact is, theos is very broad and can refer to any exalted position, including those belonging to mankind. Therefore, the use of theos in John 1:1 does not imply that the Father and Son are consubstational, i.e., belonging to the same divine essence. Instead, it confirms that the Son too is considered divine or a mighty one.
We note the following in the Restoration Study Bible: “The Word refers to the preexistent Messiah. John confirms, ‘In the beginning was the “Messiah,” and the “Messiah” was with “Yahweh,” and the “Messiah” was “a Mighty One.”’ The Greek Diaglott clarifies by saying a mighty one was the Word. The Complete Bible, an American Translation, reads, ‘In the beginning the Word existed. The Word was with (Elohim) and the Word was divine.’ Elohim is generic for mighty ones. In the OT this word applied to Yahweh, false deities, angels, and to man. In the context of this passage, Elohim refers to both the Father and Son. For additional evidence of Yahshua’s preexistence and role in creation, see Genesis 1:1, 26; Proverbs 8:22-30; 30:4; Matthew 22:44; John 3:13; 4:34; 6:38, 62; 8:23, 58; 17:5; Colossians 1:13-16; 1 Corinthians 10:4; Revelation 3:14.”
Psalm 82:6 is a condemnation of those who held positions of power or authority. From the context, they were abusing their authority. As a result, Yahweh testifies that even though they were in positions of power, they would die as ordinary men, v. 7.
That being said, those who are found faithful and granted eternal life at Yahshua’s Second Coming will be divine, i.e., mighty one. Yahshua in Luke 20:36 states that they will be as the angels of heaven and will be called “the children of Elohim” and “children of the resurrection.”
Also, Paul in 1Corinthians 15 confirms that those in the first resurrection will be changed from carnal to spirit beings: “As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly. And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly. Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of Yahweh; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption. Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality. So when this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, and this mortal shall have put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory,” verses 48-54.
As one last note, while the saints at Yahshua’s Second Coming will receive heavenly bodies that are immortal and incorruptible and be considered sons of Elohim, they will not be equal to Yahweh or Yahshua. As Scripture confirms, the Father is superior to the Son, 1Corinthians 11:3, and the Son will rule over the saints in the coming Kingdom, Revelation 20:6.
Some people say that biblically we cannot keep the feasts without being in Israel and without a priest. Is this true?
The biblical Feast days are not dependent upon physical Israel or Levitical priests. Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread were observed by Israel prior to the Levitical priesthood, Exodus 12. The Feasts were also observed in the New Testament by more than Israel. This also included the Sabbath. Consider the following examples:
“And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place,” Acts 2:1.
In this above example, it’s important to realize that many nations were present. Verses 9-11 mentions Parthians, Medes, Elamites, dwellers in Mesopotamia, Judaea, Cappadocia, Pontus, Asia, Phrygia, Pamphylia, Egypt, parts of Libya, Cyrene, strangers of Rome, Jews, proselytes, Cretes, and Arabians. These were not all Israelites or Jews. Many were gentiles. This confirms that more than Israel observed the Feasts in the New Testament.
Acts 18:4 also shows that Paul preached to both Jews and gentiles on the Sabbath: “And he reasoned in the synagogue every sabbath, and persuaded the Jews and the Greeks.” If the Sabbath and Feasts were only for Israel, why then were Greeks or gentiles present in the synagogue on the Sabbath?
In addition to these examples, there are other New Testament passages confirming Feast observance, e.g. Matthew 26, Mark 14; John 7; Acts 20:6, 20; 1Corinthians 5:7-8.
Another consideration is that Scripture confirms that Sabbath and Feasts will be observed in the millennial Kingdom:
“And it shall come to pass, that from one new moon to another, and from one sabbath to another, shall all flesh come to worship before me, saith Yahweh,” Isaiah 66:23.
“In the first month, in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten…. In the seventh month, in the fifteenth day of the month, shall he do the like in the feast of the seven days, according to the sin offering, according to the burnt offering, and according to the meat offering, and according to the oil,” Ezekiel 45:21, 25.
“Thus saith my Sovereign Yahweh; The gate of the inner court that looketh toward the east shall be shut the six working days; but on the sabbath it shall be opened, and in the day of the new moon it shall be opened,” Ezekiel 46:1.
“And it shall come to pass, that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem shall even go up from year to year to worship the King, Yahweh of hosts, and to keep the feast of tabernacles. And it shall be, that whoso will not come up of all the families of the earth unto Jerusalem to worship the King, Yahweh of hosts, even upon them shall be no rain. And if the family of Egypt go not up, and come not, that have no rain; there shall be the plague, wherewith Yahweh will smite the heathen that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles. This shall be the punishment of Egypt, and the punishment of all nations that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles,” Zechariah 14:16-19.
Isaiah confirms that all of mankind will observe the weekly Sabbath in the future Kingdom. Also, Zechariah prophesies that all nations will keep the Feast of Tabernacles, along with the other Feasts, in the Kingdom. Those who refuse will receive the plague of no rain. Therefore, the Sabbath and Feasts will be a requirement for all in the Kingdom. Knowing that the Sabbath and Feasts were observed in the Old and New testaments and will be kept in the coming millennial Kingdom, it doesn’t make sense to say they are not valid today.
Today’s refusal to observe these days is not scriptural, but is based on 2,000 years of Church tradition. As most Christian scholars acknowledge, the roots of the Church grew out of Judaism. However, as the Church grew so did the pagan and Hellenistic influence within it. As this happened, the Church departed from its Hebraic foundation to a more Greco-Roman philosophy. This change included a departure from the Feasts and Sabbath. Again, the Sabbath and Feast days are not dependent upon Israel or the Levitical system, but are days established by Yahweh for all those who will accept His covenant.
What is the difference between sanctification and justification?
These two terms are critically important to rightly comprehend the Bible and our relationship with Yahweh. Justification derives from the Greek dikaiosis. Strong’s defines it as an acquittal, i.e., an exoneration or release from sin. Sanctification derives from the Greek hagiasmos and means, “…purification, i.e. (the state) purity; concretely (by Hebraism) a purifier.”
In essence, justification is when we are redeemed or cleansed of our sins and sanctification is a living a life set apart to our Heavenly Father according to His standards, which implies obedience to His commandments.
It’s important to understand that justification is not earned or received on one’s own merits. Paul explains that justification is not of deeds or works.
“Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law,” Romans 3:28.
“What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before Elohim. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed Elohim, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the wicked, his faith is counted for righteousness,” Romans 4:1-5.
In these examples, Paul confirms that a man is justified through faith apart from debt or good works. Therefore, Scripture is clear that justification or redemption is something we do not earn by obedience. It is an expression of Yahweh’s grace or unmerited favor. As Paul verifies in the fourth chapter of Romans, even Abraham was found righteous or justified, through his faith.
However, once a person is justified they have an obligation to live a sanctified life by obeying the commandments, which is the standard of Yahweh’s righteousness. Even though Abraham was justified or found righteous through faith, he later obeyed and followed the commandments: “And I will make thy seed to multiply as the stars of heaven, and will give unto thy seed all these countries; and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws,” Genesis 26:4-5.
Even though Abraham was justified by faith, this passage confirms that he and his seed were blessed because he obeyed the commandments. As a side note, this also verifies that the law was known before Moses.
Also, as we see in the tenth chapter of Hebrews, once we come to the Truth we must not willfully transgress: “For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins, But a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation, which shall devour the adversaries. He that despised Moses’ law died without mercy under two or three witnesses: Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye shall he be thought worthy who hath trodden under foot the Son of Elohim, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?” verses 26-29.
It’s important here to understand sin. According to 1John 3:4, sin is the transgression of the law or commandments. Therefore, once we are justified and come to the knowledge of Truth, we must live a sanctified life by obeying the commandments. Since Yahweh’s law reflects His own ethics and morals, it’s essential that we comply with the commandments after being justified and enlightened with His Word.
The New Testament provides many examples that the commandments are still obligatory for believers today. Consider the following:
“Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven,” Matthew 5:17-19.
“And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, Elohim: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments,” Matthew 19:17.
“If ye love me, keep my commandments,” John 14:15.
“Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not: yea, we establish the law,” Romans 3:31.
“Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth? …Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good,” Romans 7:1, 12.
“And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of Yahweh, and have the testimony of Yahshua Messiah,” Revelation 12:17.
“Here is the patience of the saints: here are they that keep the commandments of Yahweh, and the faith of Yahshua,” Revelation 14:12.
“Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city,” Revelation 22:14.
Based on the above New Testament passages, there should be no debate whether obedience and the keeping of the commandments are required for believers today. Yahshua in the fifth chapter of Matthew confirmed that it was not His intent to destroy or abolish the commandments.
In summary, justification is the act of being washed or redeemed from one’s sins, while sanctification is living a set-apart or righteous life by obeying the commandments. While we do not earn salvation through good works, we can lose it by living a life of sin or transgressing Yahweh’s commandments
What kind of tongue is referred to in 1 Corinthians 14:2-5? What does Paul mean when he refers to the unknown tongue and no man understanding it? Also, why does he state in verse four that an unknown tongue only edifies the person speaking in the unknown tongue? Lastly, why does he wish all men to speak in tongues, as seen in verse five?
“For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto Elohim: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries. But he that prophesieth speaketh unto men to edification, and exhortation, and comfort. He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the assembly. I would that ye all spake with tongues, but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the assembly may receive edifying,” 1Corinthians 14:2-5.
Is hell a real place or just a pagan notion adopted by early Christianity? Also, does the Bible show that the fallen angels go to hell?
We believe that hell is a real place, but not as most believe. To understand this concept, it’s crucial to understand a few Hebrew and Greek words found in the Old and New testaments.